Hi EE. I've had a hard time reading through your posts, and I admit I haven't the foggiest of what you are trying to get at sometimes, but I wanted to at least join in the conversation. I chose to do it here instead of your other post, as I was more lost there than here. Hopefully I can be at least some grist to your mill. But to do it, I had to significantly pare down your mill, to accommodate so little grist.
This bothers me a bit. I think what it does is not only to separate the persons of God (which is ok, I think), but also to separate the purposes of God. Purposes plural because they appear to be at odds with each other. If God the Father had a purpose in testing (not tempting) but Jesus/Memra had a purpose in tempting, then the two are no longer one in the primary aspect they maintained their oneness in during Christ's passion.--"Not MY will but thine be done." It seems you are having Jesus say: "Our wills will both be fulfilled in the same act, but for different reasons."
In addition, I think you have either made Jesus's emptying of himself in Phil 2:5 a separate act from His becoming a man, or you've made His "putting on flesh" happen at a much earlier time than He was born of Mary. If either is the case, then are we saying that His birth of Mary was more for show than for substance?
[Phl 2:6-8 ESV]who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
I don't think you've given the full picture. The loaded gun is stowed in a drawer labelled "don't use", something most 7-year-olds understand perfectly. But you would need to peer into the mind of God to understand why it's necessary for it to be there.
I don't want to be crass here, but I think you need to be more distinguishing in your theologies. I think the other option that you may be trying to articulate here is that God puts the gun in the 7-year-old's hand, forces him to point it at his head and pull the trigger.And here I think you've distinguished TOO MUCH. The self sacrifice is in both theologies, except that perhaps (and ONLY "perhaps") only one outcome is possible in one of them.
Does this relationship start at creation? or at the birth of Jesus? If at creation, then, as I said above, Jesus had already emptied Himself before "being born in the likeness of men.", since that limited-foreknowledge relationship started, in your scenario, in the Garden of Eden.
I don't think there is biblical warrant for saying that Jesus emptied Himself in two phases, one at creation and one at birth.