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Thread: How could God truthfully threaten to "consume" the Israelites in Ex 32:10?

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    How could God truthfully threaten to "consume" the Israelites in Ex 32:10?

    From a conversation with @Jerry Shugart (here), there was a disagreement about whether God was really threatening to destroy Israel and raise up a nation from Moses, or if it was an idle threat just as a test of Moses.

    Here's the passage (with the primary verses for this conversation highlighted):
    [Exo 32:7-14 KJV] 7 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go, get thee down; for thy people, which thou broughtest out of the land of Egypt, have corrupted [themselves]: 8 They have turned aside quickly out of the way which I commanded them: they have made them a molten calf, and have worshipped it, and have sacrificed thereunto, and said, These [be] thy gods, O Israel, which have brought thee up out of the land of Egypt. 9 And the LORD said unto Moses, I have seen this people, and, behold, it [is] a stiffnecked people: 10 Now therefore let me alone, that my wrath may wax hot against them, and that I may consume them: and I will make of thee a great nation. 11 And Moses besought the LORD his God, and said, LORD, why doth thy wrath wax hot against thy people, which thou hast brought forth out of the land of Egypt with great power, and with a mighty hand? 12 Wherefore should the Egyptians speak, and say, For mischief did he bring them out, to slay them in the mountains, and to consume them from the face of the earth? Turn from thy fierce wrath, and repent of this evil against thy people. 13 Remember Abraham, Isaac, and Israel, thy servants, to whom thou swarest by thine own self, and saidst unto them, I will multiply your seed as the stars of heaven, and all this land that I have spoken of will I give unto your seed, and they shall inherit [it] for ever. 14 And the LORD repented of the evil which he thought to do unto his people.


    The problem Jerry brought up with it being a real threat (one that God might actually execute) is mentioned in the passage (underlined) along with Jacob's blessings/prophecies to his sons in Gen 49, and specifically [Gen 49:10 KJV] 10 The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him [shall] the gathering of the people [be].

    My argument was that God can do anything He wants, and if He says He is willing to make a great nation of Moses and destroy the Israelites, I expect He can do it, and still not violate His character (as described in Num 23:19 God [is] not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do [it]? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?)

    Further, the Num 23 passage (spoken by Balaam) is just as much in effect when God talks to Moses in Ex 32 as it is when Jacob speaks a blessing over his sons in Gen 49.

    Here are some possible solutions, but I'd like to hear others:
    1. God's destruction (KJV says "consume") of Israel would not be a complete destruction--the word for "consume" seems to allow that. And making a great nation of Moses would still meet the requirements of Moses' objection in Ex 32:13.
    2. God is able to raise up children of Abraham from rocks (Mat 3:9), so I suppose He could do so with children of Judah.
    3. The Shiloh prophecy is not understood correctly, and it means something that was already being fulfilled.


    Regarding 1: There are numerous instances where a people is destroyed or cut off or other tragic circumstances, but there remain some of those same people referenced in later books/chapters.

    Reg. 2: I don't prefer this, as Jesus might have been talking analogously about children of Abraham, while such a fulfillment of Jacob's prophecy seems a little deceptive to me.

    Reg. 3: I don't think the Shiloh passage is ever referenced in the New Testament as a fulfilled prophecy, so it is either ignored or it isn't considered fulfilled yet. The ramifications of it not being fulfilled yet could be interesting to certain theological positions. If it was ignored by the NT writers, then that would mean it was either not applicable, or the Holy Spirit didn't inspire anyone to write about it (for His own reasons).

    Jerry, since we've had some of this conversation, I'd prefer not to rehash old stuff with you here, but clarifications of your position are welcome.

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    TOL Legend Jerry Shugart's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    Here are some possible solutions, but I'd like to hear others:

    God's destruction (KJV says "consume") of Israel would not be a complete destruction--the word for "consume" seems to allow that. And making a great nation of Moses would still meet the requirements of Moses' objection in Ex 32:13.
    When we look at other instances of this from other places I do not see how you can argue that the LORD was not speaking of a complete destruction:

    "Let me alone, that I may destroy them, and blot out their name from under heaven: and I will make of thee a nation mightier and greater than they" (Deut.9:14).

    There can be no doubt that Moses understood what the LORD said in the same way:

    "I prayed therefore unto the LORD, and said, O Lord GOD, destroy not thy people and thine inheritance, which thou hast redeemed through thy greatness, which thou hast brought forth out of Egypt with a mighty hand"
    (Deut.9:26).

    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    God is able to raise up children of Abraham from rocks (Mat 3:9), so I suppose He could do so with children of Judah.
    Yes, but those would not be the "seed" of Jacob or Joseph so how could this prophecy be fulfilled?:

    "And said unto me, Behold, I will make thee fruitful, and multiply thee, and I will make of thee a multitude of people; and will give this land to thy seed after thee for an everlasting possession" (Gen.48:4).

    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    The Shiloh prophecy is not understood correctly, and it means something that was already being fulfilled.
    There is no doubt that the Lord Jesus was from the Tribe of Judah:

    "For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Judah; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood"
    (Heb.7:14).

    The Lord Jesus is Shiloh and it will be unto Him shall the gathering of the people be:

    "The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be" (Gen.49:10).

    If the LORD destroyed all of those from the tribe of Judah then how would Genesis 49:10 be fulfilled?

    And how could this one be fulfilled if the tribe of Zebulun would be destroyed?

    "Zebulun shall dwell at the haven of the sea; and he shall be for an haven of ships; and his border shall be unto Zidon"
    (Gen.49:13).

    These prophecies will be fulfilled because the LORD said them and He will do what He says:

    "God is not like people. He tells no lies. He is not like humans. He doesn't change his mind. When he says something, he does it. When he makes a promise, he keeps it" (Num.23:19).

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    Jerry, I haven't seen your posts around much lately. I hope all is well with you!

    I didn't mean to let this thread lapse for so long, but I was hoping others would jump in with some thoughts.
    Anyway, here's a partial answer/rebuttal. By partial, I mean that I'm only going to deal with the Shiloh reference. You have indicated that "Shiloh" is Jesus Christ, which may be true, but it might not be, as I suggested.

    Quote Originally Posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    When we look at other instances of this from other places I do not see how you can argue that the LORD was not speaking of a complete destruction:

    "Let me alone, that I may destroy them, and blot out their name from under heaven: and I will make of thee a nation mightier and greater than they" (Deut.9:14).

    There can be no doubt that Moses understood what the LORD said in the same way:

    "I prayed therefore unto the LORD, and said, O Lord GOD, destroy not thy people and thine inheritance, which thou hast redeemed through thy greatness, which thou hast brought forth out of Egypt with a mighty hand"
    (Deut.9:26).

    Yes, but those would not be the "seed" of Jacob or Joseph so how could this prophecy be fulfilled?:

    "And said unto me, Behold, I will make thee fruitful, and multiply thee, and I will make of thee a multitude of people; and will give this land to thy seed after thee for an everlasting possession" (Gen.48:4).
    Moses or any descendant of Moses could fit this promise. It is true that Jacob was passing on to his children the promise he had received from God. But that promise was not passed on specifically to any one tribe.



    There is no doubt that the Lord Jesus was from the Tribe of Judah:

    "For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Judah; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood"
    (Heb.7:14).

    The Lord Jesus is Shiloh and it will be unto Him shall the gathering of the people be:

    "The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be" (Gen.49:10).

    If the LORD destroyed all of those from the tribe of Judah then how would Genesis 49:10 be fulfilled?
    Just because Jesus is of the tribe of Judah doesn't mean that the blessing applied to Him specifically. As I pointed out before, we don't have any New Testament confirmation of the applicability of this passage to Jesus. But there's another test of it, in order to put to rest your issue that it had to happen, and therefore God couldn't really mean what He was saying to Moses. Is this prediction/blessing shown as fulfilled anywhere. I'd have to say "Yes."

    [1Ch 5:1-2 KJV] 1 Now the sons of Reuben the firstborn of Israel, (for he [was] the firstborn; but, forasmuch as he defiled his father's bed, his birthright was given unto the sons of Joseph the son of Israel: and the genealogy is not to be reckoned after the birthright. 2 For Judah prevailed above his brethren, and of him [came] the chief ruler; but the birthright [was] Joseph's

    Note that 1 Chron 5:2 gives both the intention of the blessing, as well as the fulfillment of it. the intention was that the genealogy of Jacob would be reckoned after something besides the birthright.

    If 1 Chronicles recognizes the prophecy as fulfilled already, then whatever it was that fulfilled it only had to occur before God wiped out the tribe of Judah. I have a 2 suggestions for when the prophecy was sufficiently fulfilled:
    1. When the Israelites entered the promised land, or
    2. When they set up camp at Shiloh.

    I prefer the first one. The word for Shiloh seems to indicate tranquility or rest, but it was also the name of the place Joshua set up camp when they first began the conquest of Canaan. And at the time of Samuel, it was still the place where the ark of the covenant rested.

    Does this preclude its use as a messianic prophecy? No, but it would allow for an immediate fulfillment without a more future fulfillment.

    In the case of the more future fulfillment, there's a bit of a problem with how to interpret it so that it actually was fulfilled in Christ's coming. Since Christ was born during Herod's reign, and Herod was not from Judah, and since God Himself set up a Benjamite as king prior to David, how can one say that the scepter did no pass from Judah until Christ came?


    I'm still looking at this one:
    And how could this one be fulfilled if the tribe of Zebulun would be destroyed?

    "Zebulun shall dwell at the haven of the sea; and he shall be for an haven of ships; and his border shall be unto Zidon"
    (Gen.49:13).

    These prophecies will be fulfilled because the LORD said them and He will do what He says:

    "God is not like people. He tells no lies. He is not like humans. He doesn't change his mind. When he says something, he does it. When he makes a promise, he keeps it" (Num.23:19).
    There's also the possibility that these were not really predictions/prophecies, that were required to be fulfilled, but merely blessings. Thus, as long as the receptor of each blessing lived (and that included both the sons as well as their descendants), the blessing could be claimed. But if there was no one left to claim the blessing, that might in no way reflect on God's ability to bring a certain thing to pass.

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    If the LORD was seriously considering destroying all of the descendants of Jacob except Moses then let us consider what Jacob said to his sons:

    "And Jacob called unto his sons, and said, Gather yourselves together, that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the last days"
    (Gen.49:1).

    If all of Jacob's descendants except for Moses (of the tribe of Levi) were destroyed then how is the following prophecy going to be fulfilled in the last days:

    "Judah is a lion's whelp: from the prey, my son, thou art gone up: he stooped down, he couched as a lion, and as an old lion; who shall rouse him up? The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be"
    (Gen.49:16-17).

    How is it possible that the sceptre will remain with those of the tribe of Judah until the last days if those of the tribe of Judah were destroyed at the time when the LORD said the following to Moses?:

    "Now therefore let me alone, that my wrath may wax hot against them, and that I may consume them: and I will make of thee a great nation" (Ex.32:10).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    If the LORD was seriously considering destroying all of the descendants of Jacob except Moses then let us consider what Jacob said to his sons:

    "And Jacob called unto his sons, and said, Gather yourselves together, that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the last days"
    (Gen.49:1).

    If all of Jacob's descendants except for Moses (of the tribe of Levi) were destroyed then how is the following prophecy going to be fulfilled in the last days:

    "Judah is a lion's whelp: from the prey, my son, thou art gone up: he stooped down, he couched as a lion, and as an old lion; who shall rouse him up? The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be"
    (Gen.49:16-17).

    How is it possible that the sceptre will remain with those of the tribe of Judah until the last days if those of the tribe of Judah were destroyed at the time when the LORD said the following to Moses?:

    "Now therefore let me alone, that my wrath may wax hot against them, and that I may consume them: and I will make of thee a great nation" (Ex.32:10).
    You're right! And this one, too: [Gen 49:16 KJV] Dan shall judge his people, as one of the tribes of Israel. We can see how well that holds up by showing Dan's name in the list of the tribes of Israel provided to us in Revelation:
    [Rev 7:4 KJV] And I heard the number of them which were sealed: [and there were] sealed an hundred [and] forty [and] four thousand of all the tribes of the children of Israel.
    [Rev 7:5 KJV] Of the tribe of Juda [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Reuben [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Gad [were] sealed twelve thousand.
    [Rev 7:6 KJV] Of the tribe of Aser [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Nepthalim [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Manasses [were] sealed twelve thousand.
    [Rev 7:7 KJV] Of the tribe of Simeon [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Levi [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Issachar [were] sealed twelve thousand.
    [Rev 7:8 KJV] Of the tribe of Zabulon [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Joseph [were] sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Benjamin [were] sealed twelve thousand.


    Oh, wait! Dan's not there! How is it possible, Jerry, that God could give such a prophecy, that Dan would judge his people, as one of the tribes of Israel, in the last days when he isn't even listed as one of the sealed tribes in the last days??

    Perhaps we have a convoluted conception of what "last days" means. Or maybe we don't understand what the prophecy means. But if we attach last-days significance to the Judah/Shiloh prophecy, then we need to attach similar last-days significance to the Dan/judging prophecy. If you can't, then something has to change in the interpretation.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    Oh, wait! Dan's not there! How is it possible, Jerry, that God could give such a prophecy, that Dan would judge his people, as one of the tribes of Israel, in the last days when he isn't even listed as one of the sealed tribes in the last days??
    The tribes given at Revelation 7 will be the tribes who will witness to the LORD's truth while the tribe of Dan will be the judge. One cannot be a witness and a judge at the same time.

    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    Perhaps we have a convoluted conception of what "last days" means. Or maybe we don't understand what the prophecy means. But if we attach last-days significance to the Judah/Shiloh prophecy, then we need to attach similar last-days significance to the Dan/judging prophecy. If you can't, then something has to change in the interpretation.
    Here is the evidence that the tribe of Dan will indeed exist during the last days:

    "Now these are the names of the tribes. From the north end to the coast of the way of Hethlon, as one goeth to Hamath, Hazarenan, the border of Damascus northward, to the coast of Hamath; for these are his sides east and west; a portion for Dan. And by the border of Dan, from the east side unto the west side, a portion for Asher" (Ezek. 48:1-2).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    The tribes given at Revelation 7 will be the tribes who will witness to the LORD's truth while the tribe of Dan will be the judge. One cannot be a witness and a judge at the same time.



    Here is the evidence that the tribe of Dan will indeed exist during the last days:

    "Now these are the names of the tribes. From the north end to the coast of the way of Hethlon, as one goeth to Hamath, Hazarenan, the border of Damascus northward, to the coast of Hamath; for these are his sides east and west; a portion for Dan. And by the border of Dan, from the east side unto the west side, a portion for Asher" (Ezek. 48:1-2).
    You realize that the Ezekiel passage is still talking about a regular sacrifice to atone for the sins of the people, don't you?

    [Eze 45:21 KJV] In the first [month], in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.
    [Eze 45:22 KJV] And upon that day shall the prince prepare for himself and for all the people of the land a bullock [for] a sin offering.
    [Eze 45:23 KJV] And seven days of the feast he shall prepare a burnt offering to the LORD, seven bullocks and seven rams without blemish daily the seven days; and a kid of the goats daily [for] a sin offering.
    [Eze 45:25 KJV] In the seventh [month], in the fifteenth day of the month, shall he do the like in the feast of the seven days, according to the sin offering, according to the burnt offering, and according to the meat offering, and according to the oil.


    To me, that seems to indicate that Christ's sacrifice hasn't been applied yet. Is that the "last days"? It seems to be talking about the returning of the people to their land after their captivity in Babylon. If that's the last days, before Christ came, what are the days in Revelation?

    Perhaps we aren't understanding the "last days" connotation?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    You realize that the Ezekiel passage is still talking about a regular sacrifice to atone for the sins of the people, don't you?
    What is written about the division of the land and the mention of the tribe of Dan has never happened and so it becomes obvious that it will be fulfilled during the earthly reign of Christ. Here is what is said about Jerusalem at the end of the chapter:

    "It was round about eighteen thousand measures: and the name of the city from that day shall be, The LORD is there" (Ezek.48:35).

    The tribe of Dan will still be in existence during the Millennial Age so there is nothing which prevents Dan from judging his people and therefore fulfilling the following prophecy uttered from the lips of Jacob:

    "And Jacob called unto his sons, and said, Gather yourselves together, that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the last days" (Gen.49:1).

    According to Jacob the tribe of Dan will judge his people during the last days but you say that they won't.

    p.s. there is a lot of confusion today as to the meaning of "atonement" and I believe the following is the correct translation:

    "For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people" (Heb.2:17).
    Last edited by Jerry Shugart; September 26th, 2018 at 05:24 PM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    What is written about the division of the land and the mention of the tribe of Dan has never happened and so it becomes obvious that it will be fulfilled during the earthly reign of Christ. Here is what is said about Jerusalem at the end of the chapter:

    "It was round about eighteen thousand measures: and the name of the city from that day shall be, The LORD is there" (Ezek.48:35).
    Previous views of temples and temple artifacts prior to them existing were given as instruction--see Ex 25ff. Perhaps this is instructional to Ezekiel. And then the people didn't follow the instructions.

    The tribe of Dan will still be in existence during the Millennial Age so there is nothing which prevents Dan from judging his people and therefore fulfilling the following prophecy uttered from the lips of Jacob:

    "And Jacob called unto his sons, and said, Gather yourselves together, that I may tell you that which shall befall you in the last days" (Gen.49:1).
    Are you using the very passage we are discussing to try to prove your position on what the passage means? Isn't that just like yelling a little louder that your view is correct?

    According to Jacob the tribe of Dan will judge his people during the last days but you say that they won't.
    No, that's not what I'm saying. I'm saying Jacob may not have been talking about the same "last days" that you are talking about. Just like he might not have been talking about the same "last days" for Judah. The very term is fraught with imprecision.

    And if "last days" doesn't have to mean what you say, it makes much more sense of the prophecy about Judah. For instance, God broke His own prophecy if Judah was supposed to reign until Jesus came, since He set up Saul as king--a Benjamite.


    p.s. there is a lot of confusion today as to the meaning of "atonement" and I believe the following is the correct translation:

    "For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people" (Heb.2:17).
    That uses, but doesn't give a definition of, "atonement". Can you tell me how that applies to what I wrote?

    If anything it corroborates what I wrote by showing that Jesus will be the high priest, and it won't be one of Zadok's descendants, as stated in Eze 44:15, since Jesus isn't descended from Zadok.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    Previous views of temples and temple artifacts prior to them existing were given as instruction--see Ex 25ff. Perhaps this is instructional to Ezekiel. And then the people didn't follow the instructions.
    Again, the division of the land that is prophesised in the 48th chapter hasn't ever happened in the past. The verses in that are all speaking of the land division as it will be when the name of Jerusalem will be:

    "It was round about eighteen thousand measures: and the name of the city from that day shall be, The LORD is there"
    (Ezek.48:35).

    The 48th chapter begins with the division of the land (including a portion for the tribe of Dan, also a portion of the land for the sanctuary (v.8-9), for the priests and Levites (v.10-20), for the prince (v. 21-22), more land for other tribes (v.23-29).

    And then last we see a portion of the land for the city of Jerusalem (v.30-35), and from what we read here we can understand that the whole chapter is speaking of things which will happen during the earthly kingdom of the Lord Jesus:

    "It was round about eighteen thousand measures: and the name of the city from that day shall be, The LORD is there"
    (Ezek.48:35).

    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    That uses, but doesn't give a definition of, "atonement". Can you tell me how that applies to what I wrote?
    The word "atonement" is used incorrectly in theology today to refer to the results of the Cross or to the death itself. But the meaning of the word actually applies to what was accomplished by the priest on the day of atonement (Lev.16:30).

    "For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people" (Heb.2:17).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Jerry Shugart View Post
    Again, the division of the land that is prophesised in the 48th chapter hasn't ever happened in the past. The verses in that are all speaking of the land division as it will be when the name of Jerusalem will be:

    "It was round about eighteen thousand measures: and the name of the city from that day shall be, The LORD is there"
    (Ezek.48:35).
    Again, maybe that's because the people didn't do what they were told to do. Is it a prophecy or instruction?

    And if it is prophecy, is it a conditional prophecy, like Jonah's to Nineveh? I can see how some prophecies can be conditional, intended to promise good for good behavior and bad for bad behavior. Is this one of those?

    The 48th chapter begins with the division of the land (including a portion for the tribe of Dan, also a portion of the land for the sanctuary (v.8-9), for the priests and Levites (v.10-20), for the prince (v. 21-22), more land for other tribes (v.23-29).

    And then last we see a portion of the land for the city of Jerusalem (v.30-35), and from what we read here we can understand that the whole chapter is speaking of things which will happen during the earthly kingdom of the Lord Jesus:

    "It was round about eighteen thousand measures: and the name of the city from that day shall be, The LORD is there"
    (Ezek.48:35).
    Yes, and?



    The word "atonement" is used incorrectly in theology today to refer to the results of the Cross or to the death itself. But the meaning of the word actually applies to what was accomplished by the priest on the day of atonement (Lev.16:30).

    "For this reason he had to be made like them, fully human in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people" (Heb.2:17).
    Ok. What's your point?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Derf View Post
    Again, maybe that's because the people didn't do what they were told to do. Is it a prophecy or instruction?
    Let us look at the words of Ezekiel in the following verses because the answer is not uncertain:

    "Thus saith the Lord GOD; This shall be the border, whereby ye shall inherit the land according to the twelve tribes of Israel: Joseph shall have two portions. And ye shall inherit it, one as well as another: concerning the which I lifted up mine hand to give it unto your fathers: and this land shall fall unto you for inheritance...So shall ye divide this land unto you according to the tribes of Israel. And it shall come to pass, that ye shall divide it by lot for an inheritance unto you, and to the strangers that sojourn among you, which shall beget children among you: and they shall be unto you as born in the country among the children of Israel; they shall have inheritance with you among the tribes of Israel...Now these are the names of the tribes. From the north end to the coast of the way of Hethlon, as one goeth to Hamath, Hazarenan, the border of Damascus northward, to the coast of Hamath; for these are his sides east and west; a portion for Dan. And by the border of Dan, from the east side unto the west side, a portion for Asher" (Ezek.46:13-14, 21-22; 48:1-2).

    There can be no doubt that this is a "prophecy" and the LORD says that "it shall come to pass, that ye shall divide it by lot for an inheritance unto you."

    "It shall come to pass."
    He doesn't say that they must make it happen and it is not said that it will come to pass "if" you do this or don't do that.

    This is a prophecy straight from the LORD and it is an "unconditional" promise. So we know that in the last days the tribe of Dan will still be in existence, despite your assertion to the contrary.

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