ECT MADist thought for the day

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Danoh

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Interplanner said:
There's no basis for saying that. That is a vestige of 2P2P dying out because it is a fraud that was generated by D'ism.
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Another myth you and your favorite writers "about" continue to spread - in both your continued reasoning "about" a thing through the books based "reasoning" of men :chuckle:
 
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Danoh

New member
andyc said:
Here's another one of those obvious points that sail of the heads of the mads.....

Let's look at what the apostle John said about receiving grace.....

John 1:12-14
But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

So to the people who received Jesus, he gave them the right to become children of God. This obviously means that they were not children of God before Jesus came. Why not? Well he tells us, doesn't he? To be a child of God, you have to be born of God, which is talking about a spiritual birth, as Jesus explained in John 3.
And so as a son of God, John couldn't be under the law, could he?

As Paul says.....

Gal 4:4-7 Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world. But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those who were under the law, that we might receive the adoption as sons. And because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts, crying out, "Abba, Father!" Therefore you are no longer a slave but a son, and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.

And so we see that a son cannot be a slave, can he? Therefore John, as a son, was not under the law, was he?
But it gets more obvious than this (unless you're mad of course).

John 1:14-17
 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth. John bore witness of Him and cried out, saying, "This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is preferred before me, for He was before me.’" And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

John explains that he beheld the glory of Christ as the Son of God, as being full of grace and truth, and went on to confess that he had received of Christ's fullness. This means that the fullness of grace was transferred to John, because the sonship was also transferred to John.

Hebrews 2:10 For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory.

And so John is saying that Jesus brought John to the glory he had seen in Christ.

And to finish off, John added, "the law came through Moses, but grace came through Jesus". John received the fullness of that grace, which means he was no longer under the law.


John was not under the law, which is absolutely obvious unless your a mad nutter.
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Very poor structuring of all that.

Typical of the very root of your "Charismatic" blindness; your consistent failure to consider studying a thing out from within a wider frame of reference BEFORE allowing yourself your conclusion.

Study out the phrase "the children of Israel" in the OT (Exodus thu Early Acts) and you will often find it used in the same sense as the phrase "of the LORD" and or "of God."

Study out the phrase "the children of the kingdom."

Study out - o never mind, you Pentecostal fool.

If you actually had "the gift" you would neither need the Bible, nor need to study out a thing in the Bible.

Your real problem?

Your severe ignorance, not only of what the Cross actually and FULLY accomplished; but why "the signs" and their intent back in the 1st Century.

Galatians 3:1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you? 3:2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3:3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? 3:4 Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. 3:5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

:doh:
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Danoh said:
Very poor structuring of all that.

Typical of the very root of your "Charismatic" blindness; your consistent failure to consider studying a thing out from within a wider frame of reference BEFORE allowing yourself your conclusion.

Study out the phrase "the children of Israel" in the OT (Exodus thu Early Acts) and you will often find it used in the same sense as the phrase "of the LORD" and or "of God."

Study out the phrase "the children of the kingdom."

Study out - o never mind, you Pentecostal fool.

If you actually had "the gift" you would neither need the Bible, nor need to study out a thing in the Bible.

Your real problem?

Your severe ignorance, not only of what the Cross actually and FULLY accomplished; but why "the signs" and their intent back in the 1st Century.

Galatians 3:1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you? 3:2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3:3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? 3:4 Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. 3:5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

:doh:
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The early Acts as OT is overturned by the NT in the Moses and Prophets. Gotcha. The 'mystery' of it is the veil of Judaism which had replaced the worldwide Promise with the Law. That's their problem. It does not mean that the NT is not there in the previous.
 
andyc

andyc

New member
Danoh said:
Very poor structuring of all that.

Typical of the very root of your "Charismatic" blindness; your consistent failure to consider studying a thing out from within a wider frame of reference BEFORE allowing yourself your conclusion.
Click to expand...

Very poor LOL
I don't mind you brushing me and hundreds of respected theologians aside in favor useless modern nonsense put together by uneducated nutcases.

Study out the phrase "the children of Israel" in the OT (Exodus thu Early Acts) and you will often find it used in the same sense as the phrase "of the LORD" and or "of God."

Study out the phrase "the children of the kingdom."

Study out - o never mind, you Pentecostal fool.
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Jesus gave people the right to be born of God, not born of the flesh. Go away and think about this.

If you actually had "the gift" you would neither need the Bible, nor need to study out a thing in the Bible.

Your real problem?
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2Tim 3:16


Your severe ignorance, not only of what the Cross actually and FULLY accomplished; but why "the signs" and their intent back in the 1st Century.
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This thread is not about signs and wonders. You are wanting to change the subject because you can't respond to my post.

Galatians 3:1 O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you? 3:2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3:3 Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? 3:4 Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. 3:5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

:doh:
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Falling back into the law, which is nothing to do with the point I raised.

A typical mad nutter without a clue.
 
andyc

andyc

New member
Grosnick Marowbe said:
You seem to forget something Andy, my boy. Both John and Hebrews were speaking to "Non-Gentiles." Do you catch my drift, pal?
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Yeah, it was the main point I was actually making. Jews receiving the fullness of Christ, and what that meant.

You, my boy, put me back on ignore, and do me a favor and ignore me. Let's see if you really can do it.
 
1Mind1Spirit

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
andyc said:
Yeah, it was the main point I was actually making. Jews receiving the fullness of Christ, and what that meant.

You, my boy, put me back on ignore, and do me a favor and ignore me. Let's see if you really can do it.
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So ole Grosnick was unwittingly cosigning yer post. :idea:
 
andyc

andyc

New member
1Mind1Spirit said:
So ole Grosnick was unwittingly cosigning yer post. :idea:
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Well he's not really here to get involved in any kind of discussion. He just constantly makes worthless comments questioning the character of those who are not mad. The irony in that :chuckle:
 
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