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Please someone answer me this;

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  • Originally posted by chair View Post
    This is irrelevant. The question is: what did Paul mean when he said "scriptures"? Was he referring to what were known as "scriptures" in his time, i.e. the Hebrew Bible, or to "the Hebrew Bible AND all the letters that I've written, that will, in a few centuries, be collected, and called "New Testament"?
    You say that, with you, there's a question. That you're in doubt. And yet, out of the other side of your mouth, you pretend to answer your question, by your own pretended authority, and on behalf of yourself, that Paul did NOT mean the NT writings, but only the OT writings. Christians aren't in doubt, though. So, that's your question, as an anti-Christian, alone.

    By your conjunctions, "or" and "AND", you're denying that the NT writings were "known as "scriptures" in [Paul's] time". Now, are you saying that the NT writings were not "known as "scriptures" in [Paul's] time" BY CHRISTIANS? Of course anti-Christians of Paul's day would likely have refused to "know as "scriptures"", the NT writings. Yeah, obviously. So what? Please cite whatever pretended authority prompts you to that denial.
    All my ancestors are human.
    PS: All your ancestors are human.
    PPS: To all you cats, dogs, monkeys, and other assorted house pets whose masters are outsourcing the task of TOL post-writing to you (we know who you are )– you may disregard the PS.

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    • I've been away for a few days, and I see that many are busy attacking me, but I see very little attempts to actually deal with facts.

      Somehow that makes me the blind one.

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