I don't have an argument yet, I am still waiting to see all the evidence. My initial (uneducated) reading tells me this:
"I am trying to understand the tenses used in this verse, when I study the English translations (assuming the translators understood Greek rules) I see this verse talking in the present or present\future tense."
That is posted in the post before yours. But you would have had to actually read it, to understand what it is I said. Did you read that sentence? Which part of the sentence structure is not clear?
I've told you, you gave me an interpretation I had never heard before, so I went searching again, and I couldn't seem to find anyone that holds that view. Only you. Which is fine, I have no issue if you want to hold beliefs different from mine. I don't care what you believe.
I don't care where the evidence leads. I had my reading of all the English versions, which didn't go counter to what the Christian Greek experts were saying. You provided me with a new interpretation, and I looked into it. You had a fit because I wouldn't take your word for it. Haha. I have asked for a single reference, to a scholar or even a fake scholar that can explain your point of view. Instead of telling me that there isn't one, or you can't find one, or even explaining to me why your translation (not interpretation) should be preferred over the English Bible translators? I have asked so many times, I can't remember how many, so please, either put up or ...
Please provide one source. I don't care what you came up with in your head, unless it is backed by correct Greek language translation rules.
There is a difference between translation and interpretation, which you don't seem to grasp. Translation is a hard science, there are strict rules (with some exceptions) to the language sentence structure. Interpretation, everyone has their own interpretation guidelines, so most people love to play in this space for the greatest flexibility.
Either supply one source that says this verse is only past tense referring to a single past event, or tell me you have none and it all based on your "faith" that your interpretation is correct. Or a third option, as long as it is an honest answer based on why the Greek should be translated your way.
I don't care what the end result is, as I will adjust my beliefs around the evidence. You, however, have already admitted that if your interpretation is wrong, then you have much bigger problems. So which way is your BIAS going to push you in and keep you from honestly evaluating?
I'll check back tomorrow. Love you Dad.
(What I think will happen: to all the regulars that know my Dad. I'm betting he is going to wax long and hard on who knows what. But the what won't be with providing a source, or addressing that issue. He will try and redirect the conversation. And he won't answer any of the questions actually posted to him, those will go ignored, because he can't redirect as well if he is distracted. And does he ever actually answer anyones questions? I'm hoping it isn't just me he does that too.)
